the
gemara here treats the husband as a "buyer", my question is that if so he should be considered a buyer that bought the property after the
onslaught of the
chiuv mezonos, so what is the
chidush that he has to pay
mezonons? in other words, the whole proof is from the fact that this husband is different then a regular buyer (see
rashi) see i wonder can the children sell property after the fathers death to
absolve themselves from paying sustenance?
Regards to both of you from Reb Menachem Spira
ReplyDeletethanks,hope to meet you one day.
ReplyDeleteIt would be a zchus for me.
ReplyDeletethanks for the regards.
ReplyDeleteback to r' yossi's question - i think it is clear that normally the mezonos would not come from mishubadim, even if it was sold after the chiyuv mezonos (because that is the only case where a ba'al chov would collect from mishubadim, and on that we are mechadesh that for mezonons you don't collect from mishubadim). Nevertheless, we allow the widow to collect from her daughters husband, to the exclusion if the daughter actually sold it the almana would not collect.
i hear, but it comes out really wierd, what stops the Yorshim from selling off all the land???
ReplyDelete