Bechoros 9b - Spending Money for Safeik Mitzva

The Mishna says that if one has a safeik whether they have a peter chamor, they must redeem it with a sheep but don't need to give it to the kohein  since the rule for giving is המוציא מחבירו עליו הראיה - the burden of proof is on the collector. The gemara says that this follows the opinion of R. Yehuda who says that a peter chamor is forbidden to derive benefit from, therefore one must redeem it even though it won't be given, but according to R. Shimon who says that it is permitted, there isn't even a mitzvah to redeem it. 

Tosafos raises an interesting question - A peter chamor without redemption requires it's neck to be broken. Since the mitzvah to break it's neck (arifa) is like any mitzvah where we are strict when there is a doubt, even if it weren't assur b'hanah, there should be a requirement to break it's neck. Tosafos answer cryptically and says that just as one doesn't need to give it to the kohein, there is also no requirement to do the arifa out of safeik. It isn't clear what Tosafos means to say - the concept of המוציא מחבירו עליו הראיה exempts the giving to the kohein but doesn't exempt the breaking of it's neck? 

The Maharit Algazi suggests that since we have a concept of המוציא מחבירו עליו הראיה and apply it even to mitzvos that one is obligated to do by the torah such as all safeik of gifts to the kohein, we can similarly apply this concept to any mitzvah where it is questionable if one needs to fulfill it and the fulfilling of it would entail a loss of money. Since the arifa of the peter chamor would be a loss of money, one isn't required to incur the loss for a safeik mitzvah.

This approach is very difficult to accept. It should follow that if one is in doubt whether they are obligated in matzah on pesach or whether they have already fulfilled their mitzvah, they shouldn't be required to incur any expense to fulfill the mitzvah. Had this been true, it should have been mentioned in earlier poskim. Rather, we generally assume that this rule is limited to mitzvos that require giving, but doesn't apply to expenses that need to be incurred to fulfill mitzvos between man and G-d. Therefore, this concept shouldn't apply to the mitzvah of arifa (breaking the donkeys neck).

The Rashash explains that Tosafos doesn't mean to fully equate the mitzvah of breaking the neck with the giving to the kohein, since the concept of המוציא מחבירו עליו הראיה wouldn't apply to the mitzvah of arifa. Rather, Tosafos holds that the arifa is the consequence when one doesn't fulfill the mitzvah to give the sheep to the kohein as redemption of the newborn donkey which is incumbent upon him. When there is no requirement to give a sheep to the kohein, the mitzvah of arifa would also not apply.

Bechoros 6b - Heter to Drink Kosher Milk

The gemara says that the fact that milk of a kosher animal is permitted to drink is a chiddush because one could have argued that it would be included in either the prohibition against blood (דם נעכר ונעשה חלב), or the prohibition against אבר מן החי since it is part of a live animal. The gemara cites three possible pesukim as the source of the fact that milk is kosher (either the pasuk when Dovid brought milk to the troops, or the pasuk that praises the land of Israel for it's milk which indicates that it is permitted to drink, or a pasuk in Yeshaya).

The Shita Mikubetzes asks, why not use the pasuk by Avrohom when he fed the angels butter and milk. Being that Avrohom kept the entire Torah, the fact that he was willing to give milk to the angels indicates that it is permitted to drink? The R"I answers that Avrohom thought that they were bnei noach. Even if milk were forbidden to Jews, it wouldn't be one of the 7 Noachide laws and permissible for them to drink it. The Shita then cites a Yerushalmi (which is not in the Yerushalmi but in the pesikta and quoted by the da'as zekeinim on parshas vayera) that indicates they ate meat and milk (unlike the gemara in baba meztia which implies that didn't actually eat, and also says that it was served one by one i.e. milk before meat) . When it came time to give the Torah and the mal'achim were complaining they wanted to keep it, Hashem said that every child knows that meat and milk can't be eaten together, yet they ate meat and milk when they visited Avrohom. It isn't clear how this midrash connects to the discussion of the Shita Mikubetzes. Perhaps the Shita is trying to prove that Avrohom thought they were bnei noach from the fact that he fed them meat and milk, so there wouldn't be any proof from there about milk being permitted to drink.

The Maharit Algazi asks that according to the rationale that milk would be assur as אבר מן החי, it would surely apply to non-jews as well. The answer of the Shita that Avrohom assumed they were bnei noach doesn't work if the issur on milk would be an offshoot of אבר מן החי? The Chasam Sofer (y.d. 70) answers that the gemara never really suggested that milk would actually be אבר מן החי or בשר מן החי because it is neither an ei'ver or ba'ssar. Rather the gemara was suggesting that it should be LIKE אבר מן החי in the sense that it would be assur (not not for goyim), based on concept of הטמאים - לאסור צירן ורוטבן וקיפה שלהן. Meaning, since אבר מן החי is assur and the animal is assur when it is alive, so anything that comes from it when it is alive should be included in the prohibition of הטמאים. This prohibition would certainly apply to Jews only, therefore Avrohom would have had no problem giving milk to b'nei noach.

Bechoros 5b - Categorizing Animals Based on Features or Genetics

The Mishna discusses a case where a mother cow gives birth to a child that looks like a donkey. The gemara learns from the pasuk of פטר חמור that the child would not have Kedushas Bechor. It is clear from the gemara that we completely exempt it from any kedusha of bechor, but it isn't clear from the gemara which type of kedusha it would have if not for the pasuk excluding it. Meaning, do we regard it as a cow since genetically it is a cow, just that it looks like a donkey, or do we regard it as a donkey since it looks like a donkey?

It would seem that the answer lies in the end of the Mishna which cites a rule that היוצא מן הטמא טמא והיוצא מן הטהור טהור. The mishna seems to indicate that the genetic makeup of an animal determines the species to which it belongs, therefore an animal born from a kosher animal (even if it looks like a donkey) is kosher. Similarly, an animal born from a non-kosher animal (even if it looks like a cow) is not a kosher animal. If genetics determines the category, we would have to say that a cow that gives birth to a donkey would have been treated like a בהמה טהורה and been brought as a korban on the mizbei'ach, if not for the pasuk excluding it.

However, the implication of the mishna which uses a pasuk of פטר חמור to exclude this case, implies that we really need the pasuk to exclude it from the requirement of פטר חמור, not from kedushas mizbei'ach (although the gemara confirms that it would certainly be excluded from kedushas mizbei'ach as well). The Steipler (4) proves from Tosafos that this is true. Tosafos suggests that for a cow that gives birth to a donkey the pasuk of the mishna (פטר חמור) would be necessary to exclude if from the mitzvah of redemption like a donkey, and the pasuk in the gemara would be necessary to exclude the reverse (a donkey giving birth to a cow) from kedushas mizbei'ach. Although Tosafos concludes that either pasuk would exclude it completely, their logical default for not having a pasuk would be that the animal should be treated as it looks, not as the species of it's mother. Meaning, a cow that gives birth to a donkey would have been treated like a donkey to require redemption despite that it's genetic makeup is that of a cow. The Steipler proves from here that the species of any animal is determined by it's appearance, not by it's genetics. Nevertheless, there is a separate rule that if it looks like a kosher animal but is born from a donkey, it cannot be eaten - היוצא מן הטמא טמא, not because it's a donkey, but because it is a non-kosher cow. Similarly, if it looks like a donkey it is a donkey, yet if born from a cow it can be eaten because היוצא מן הטהור טהור. This approach of categorizing a donkey born from a cow as a "kosher donkey" is significant because for purposes other than eating i.e. eiver min ha'chai it would have status of what it looks like, not what it is genetically.

The gemara 6a seems to strongly support the approach of the steipler that the species is determined by it's appearance rather than it's genetics. According to the rule that having similarities to it's mother can make it have kedusha of bechor, the gemara questions whether a donkey that has similarities to it's mother which is a cow, would have kedusha. The gemara's suggestion of why it is too different from the mother and wouldn't have kedusha is - הא טמאה והא טהורה, הא קדושת הגוף והא קדושת דמים. The gemara describes it as a non-kosher animal and as the value having kedusha rather than inherent kedusha. Clearly, the gemara is understanding that since it looks like a donkey, if it were to have kedusha (because it has similarities to the mother), it would have קדושת דמים like any donkey, not קדושת הגוף like it's mother.

Bechoros 3b - Avoiding Kedushas Bechor

The gemara discusses exactly how much of an animal must be given over to a goy in order to avoid kedushas bechor. The predominant opinion seems to be like R. Huna that the ear is enough, since we find that Rami Bar Rachel did that as well. Tosafos entertains the possibility that we would pasken that one would have to give over to the goy a portion in the animal that if missing would render the animal a neveila or treifa (rav chisda and rava), but considers it to be a chumra. Regarding the fact that one is removing kedusha from animal entirely by selling a portion to a goy, Tosafos suggests that it would only be an issue if one were to sell a portion of the fetus which itself would have otherwise had kedusha, but would not be an issue when selling a portion of the mother. Even though this may not be ideal, Tosafos considers it the proper thing to do nowadays since there is no better alternative and if this isn't done someone will surely violate a more severe prohibition with the animal.

The Turei Even (Rosh HaShana 13) suggests that being mafkir the animal would NOT be sufficient to remove the kedusha of bechor from the fact that Rami Bar Rachel who was looking for the simplest option, didn't use the method of hefker. The Chasam Sofer (Y.D. 316) dismisses the proof since it could be that a proper hefker in the presence of others could have been more complicated and difficult than simply selling the ear to a goy. The Maharit Algazi suggests a complicated approach. Hefker wouldn't work to remove the obligation of bechor on an animal that already has kedushas bechor. However, if one were to be mafkir the fetus prior to it's birth, since at the time when it would be fit to receive kedushas bechor it doesn't have an owner, it wouldn't get kedushas bechor. He then backs off based on a gemara in Chulin and says that even if born as hefker, as soon as a Jew would take possession of it, it would assume kedushas bechor.

Chulin 141b - Punishing for Shiluach Hakein

The gemara says that R. Yehuda gave malkus to someone who clipped the wings of a bird and then sent it away on its feet to fulfill the mitzvah of shiluach hakein because he holds that it must be sent away by flying, not by hopping. The Mishneh L'melech (hil. avadim 18) asks how he was able to punish for this mitzvah. We have a rule - כל מצות עשה שמתן שכרה בצדה אין ב"ד של מטה מוזהרין עליו, meaning that Beis Din doesn't punish for any mitzvah that has a reward tagged onto it. How was R. Yehuda able to punish for shiulach hakein which has the reward of long life attached to it? 

The Maharatz Chiyus suggests based on Rashi (?) that the reason that beis din doesn't punish when there is a reward attached is because by writing the reward the torah is hinting that the this is the reward for doing it and not receiving this reward is the punishment for not doing it, to the exclusion of any other punishment. The Maharatz Chiyus explains that this rule works by other mitzvos, but by shiluach hakein the mishna 142a says that the reward needs to be written to teach that there is tremendous reward even for small mitzvos such as this for which there is very little expense. From here we derive that for all mitzvos there is great reward, making it unnecessary to dictate the specific reward if not for the purpose of exempting you from any other punishment. Therefore, shiulach hakein is an exception to the rule since it serves as the source for teaching that there is great reward for even seemingly simple mitzvos, and is not meant to exclude any other punishment.

It seems to me that Rashi himself is coming to answer the question as to how R. Yehuda was able to punish for a mitzvah that the torah writes the מתן שכרה בצדה. Rashi says that the purpose of his "punishment" wasn't punitive, rather it was רידוי בתוכחה שלא ירגיל בזה, ואין לה קצבה אלא עד שיקבל עליו. Meaning, the purpose was not to punish, rather to change the person and motivate him to fulfill the mitzvah. Although Beis Din may not "punish" or "penalize" for mitzvos on which a reward is tagged on, they may still have the ability to encourage and motivate one to fulfill the mitzvah even through force.

Chulin 139b - Searching after mitzvos

The gemara says that one may have thought that they would be required to search after the mitzvah of shi'luach ha'kein and put in effort to find a birds nest on mountains and hilltops, to which the gemara responds that it only applies when you chance upon it. There is a great debate among the achronim regarding the mitzvah of shiluach ha'kein, whether it is an absolute obligation to send away the mother bird even if one has no particular interest in the baby birds, or is it a mitzvah more similar to divorce where if one wants to do something i.e. take the babies, or divorce their wife, the torah prescribes a format that must be followed. The Chacham Tzvi (83) and Chasam Sofer (100) suggest from this gemara that thought to demand searching after the mitzvah on mountain tops, that it is an absolute obligation. Although the gemara concludes that one isn't obligated to go to the extreme of trying to locate a birds nest, the underlying assumption that it is an absolute imperative even if one has no interest in the babies is never rejected.

On a bit of a different note using the same source, the Mekor Chaim (Nesivos on Hil. Pesach Siman 432) which I cited in my sefer Nasiach B'chukecha (195) proves from our gemara that one is required to invest effort into searching after mitzvos from the fact that the gemara required a specific pasuk to exempt the assumption of searching after the mitzvah on hilltops. Therefore, other mitzvos that don't have a pasuk exempting this level of effort, would demand that extreme amount of effort. However, in my edits on my sefer I pointed out that from Rashi we would be able to prove the exact opposite. Rashi writes - 

שנאמר שלח תשלח ב' פעמים, שומע אני לחזור אחר המצוה הזאת עד שתבא לידו. Rashi explains that the default position for having to put tremendous effort into searching after this mitzvah is not a gobal requirement or assumption that would be by all mitzvos. Rashi says that since we have the double language of שלח תשלח I would have understood that this mitzvah would require one to search after it in order to fulfill it, to which the gemara responds that כי יקרא implies the opposite. Therefore, other mitzvos which have no pasuk specifically implying that it demands an extreme level of effort, one would not have to put in tremendous effort to attain the mitzvah.

Chulin 135a - Reishis Ha'Geiz and Matnos Kehuna Nowadays

According to the Mishnayos both the mitzvah of ראשית הגז  and the mitzvah of מתנות כהונה apply without a Beis HaMikdash and even outside of Eretz Yisroel. However, Rav Nachman 136b made a statement that the minhag is to follow רב אלעאי by ראשית הגז and that it should only apply in E.Y. Rashi comments - והוא הדין במתנות, meaning that there is no rationale to differentiate between ראשית הגז  and the matanos of זרוע לחיים וקיבה. Since the minhag has become to follow רב אלעאי by ראשית הגז, we also follow him for matanos kehuna that they don't apply outside of E.Y. The Shulchan Aruch both in the halachos of Matanos Kehuna (y.d. 61:21) writes that they apply even outside of E.Y. and then cites a יש מי שאומר שאינן נוהגות בחוצה לארץ. The Shulchan Aruch in the context of matanos kehuna writes וכן נהגו on the lenient opinion even though the main opinion seems to obligate matanos even outside of E.Y. Interestingly, the Shulchan Aruch in the context of reishis ha'geiz doesn't even quotes the stricter opinion - he writes that it only applies in E.Y. to which the Rama adds that some says it applies even on a Torah level in chutz la'aretz but we aren't noheig to be machmir. The Shulchan Aruch is more confident about exempting from reishis ha'geiz in chutz la'aretz since that is explicit in Rav Nachman's statement. Although there is no rationale to differentiate between reishis ha'geiz and matanos, the gr"a (61:20) explains that the leniency is based on a minhag which may have only been to be lenient about reishis ha'geiz and not about matanos kehuna. The Beis Hillel (333) struggles with trying to understand why we are even lenient in E.Y. nowadays. Although the Pischei Teshuva (61:8) cites the chasam sofer who would routinely shecht an animal before yom tov and fulfill the mitzvah of matanos kehuna and reishis ha'geiz, the minhag is not to be makpid about fulfilling these mitzvos. The Beis Ephraim (on shulchan aruch 61) quotes the kerisi u'pleisi who wonders why we don't find people going out of their way to fulfill this mitzvah. He quotes the Pri Chadash who argues on the Beis Hillel's (who wrote that he was told that even in E.Y. people don't fulfill the mitzvah of matanos kehuna), and says that they didn't realize what they saw because it is מעשים בכל יום that matnos kehuna are given in E.Y. from the animals that are being shechted. The Beis Ephraim also quotes that the kreisi writes that his son in law insisted on giving matanos kehuna at the pidyon ha'ben of his son. Since he was being machzik the kohein as a kohein for the purpose of discharging his pidyon ha'ben obligation, he certainly can rely on his yichus to give him matnos kehuna.

Chulin 122b - How far do you have to go?

The gemara says that for tefilah and netilas yadayim one must travel 4 mil forward, and just under one mil backward. Rashi explains that we are talking about someone who is on the road travelling and he wants to stop for the day, but knows that he will have a shul 4 mil ahead to daven (Tosafos assumes that this means a minyan, not a physical structure), he must continue to go to the shul. Similarly, if one was hungry and wanted to eat bread but didn't have water to wash his hands, he would be required to wait until he travels 4 mil before he eats.

The Biur Halacha (163) assumes that the shiur of 4 mil is really a time requirement. Since it would take 72 minutes for the average person to travel 4 mil, the gemara is demanding that one wait 72 minutes. A possible scenario would be if one is on an airplane and wants to eat bread but can't leave his seat at the moment, since it is very likely that within 72 minutes he will be able to wash, he is obligated to wait. It isn't clear to me why the Biur Halacha assumes that this would be dependent on time. Rashi uses language of "tircha" implying that one must push themselves to continue to travel, implying that the amount of 4 mil was for a circumstance where he was on foot and walking 4 mil is a significant tircha. Perhaps if he were travelling with minimal tircha he would need to wait longer than 72 minutes.

The M.B. also comments that if one isn't certain that by waiting or continuing to travel they will find the shul or water, they aren't required to wait at all. This is certainly the implication of Rashi who writes in definitive terms that there is water and a shul in front of him.
Another point that the Biur Halacha makes in the name of the Chayei Adam is that if one isn't very hungry he should wait even more than 4 mil. However, Rashi gives an example of one who wants to stop while it is still day and the halacha demands that since it is still day time and easy to travel, he must continue. It would seem that a similar case by eating would be when one wants to eat now but can relatively easily delay. Perhaps if one is very hungry so that delaying is very difficult (on the level of travelling at night), they wouldn't even have to wait 4 mil.

Chulin 121a - Concept of Achshavei

There is a halacha that is recorded twice in Y.D., once at the end of hilchos sheratzim and once in siman 155 in the Rama - מותר לשרוף שרץ או שאר דבר איסור ולאכלו לרפואה אפילו חולה שאין בו סכנה. The obvious implication is that for the sake for refuah it is permissible to eat a prohibited item that has become inedible, but when it is not being done for refuah purposes, it is forbidden. The Yad Avrohom explains based on the Rosh (2nd Perek of Pesachim) that when one burns chometz before pesach rendering it unfit for consumption, it would still be forbidden to eat on Pesach since by eating it he is giving it importance - מדאכליה אחשביה. Based on this it would be forbidden under normal circumstances to eat a bug or other forbidden item that has been burned, but if it is merely being eaten for medicinal purposes it is permitted since the concept of אחשביה only applies when one is consuming it as a food item. This is to the exclusion of the Sha'agas Aryeh (75) who considers the concept of אחשביה to apply even when one is eating something for medicinal purposes. Either way, the concept of אחשביה is a Rabbinic concept. On a Torah level it would seem impossible for one's intent or purpose to determine an item forbidden or permitted.

However, according to R. Yehuda in the mishna, when one gathers the small pieces of meat that are attached to the inner side of the hide together to make a kezayis, it would have status of a kezyais neveila. Rav Huna explains that this is only when he himself gathers them together, indicating through his actions that he is considering it to be important - דאחשביה וגלי דעתיה דלא בטליה מעיקרא: רש"י. Rashi writes that the concept of אחשביה can be used here, not only in the realm of טומאת נבילה, but even in the realm of איסור נבילה. Meaning, his intent to consider the scraps to be meat restores their status even in the world of issur. Tosafos asks on Rashi, where do we ever find that intent could be the determining factor as to whether a food item is permitted or prohibited!? This would seem to be a machlokes between Rashi and Tosafos whether the concept of אחשביה can even work on a d'oraysa level in the realm of issur v'heter.

The gemara on 120a said that חלב -animal fat that had been liquefied should not be included in the prohibition of eating חלב since it would be drinking and not eating, and we need a special source in the Torah to include it. However, the gemara says that blood which the torah forbids as an issur to eat in it's natural state (as a liquid) would also be forbidden if it were congealed - כיון דאקפיה אחשובה אחשביה - since he gave it status through the act of congealing it. This gemara seems to support Rashi, because we are using the concept of אחשביה to maintain the issur of consuming blood even when it is in solid form. But, upon further analysis, we can ask a more basic question. Why does the gemara require this rationale and not simply state that if liquid blood qualifies as eating, then certainly solid blood would qualify? It seems to me that the gemara is bothered by another issue. Since blood is naturally in a liquid state, consuming it in it's solid state could be considered שלא כדרך אכילה - not the normal way of eating. The gemara is saying that since he congeals it for the purpose of eating it as a solid, it is still considered a normal way of eating. We aren't using this rationale to transform the status of the blood from issur to heter, only to say that it still qualifies as a normal way of eating.

Chulin 116b - Keiva as Rennet

The mishna speaks about "keiva" which refers to the enzymes that line the stomach wall of the animal, and the "or ha'keiva" - skin of the keiva, which is the actual piece of the stomach wall. The keiva is considered merely "pirsha" and therefore concludes that even the enzymes that line the stomach of a neveila or treifa animal can be used, but one cannot use as rennet the actual wall of the stomach of a neveila animal.

Rashi discusses milk that is found in the keiva of the animal that is then salted together with the stomach of the animal. Rashi points out that to permit using this milk that was salted with the stomach as rennet, we would have to assume that the milk found in the stomach qualifies as "pirsha" similar to the enzymes. Rashi rejects this notion and considers the milk to be actual milk so that when salted with the meat of the stomach qualifies as meat salted with milk and becomes assur m'drabonon as bassar b'cholov. We would then say that חתיכה נעשה נבילה so that all that milk has status of issur and when used as rennet will spread issur to all the milk since we say min b'mino is not batul (this is rashi's opinion 109a and many other places that we pasken min b'mino isn't batul. tosafos disagrees and holds that we pasken min b'mino is batul - but in this case where it is effective in being ma'amid the cheese, even tosafos would agree that we don't say bitul).

Rashi implies that had we considered the milk inside the stomach to be merely "pirsha", we would be able to compare this case to fish that was placed in a meat dish, which can be eaten with milk using the concept of נ"ט בר נ"ט, meaning a second generational no'sein ta'am. Both the Rashash on Rashi and the Shach (y.d. 87, 31) point out that even if we were to consider the milk that was salted with the stomach lining to be "pirsha" it would still not be comparable to the hot fish on a meat plate that can be eaten with a dairy food. The concept of נ"ט בר נ"ט  only applies when the second generation flavor stand alone as a permitted entity that you are now going to use with milk. However, when the milk is salted with the skin of the stomach, the "pareve" milk inside the stomach absorbs a ta'am rishon of meat. We then take that ta'am rishon and mix it with milk to create cheese. Since the ta'am sheini of meat is immediately mixing with milk, we consider that to be an issur. Rashi writes that he originally thought that the milk in the stomach qualified as pirsha and was matir, implying that he holds that if the milk were truly pareve because it was considered to be "pirsha" then we could compare it to the case of hot fish in a fleishig plate that could be eaten with milk, and doesn't seem concerned with the aforementioned distinction. 

Rashi 111b (d.h. nosein ta'am) writes explicitly that one cannot put hot milk in a fleishig bowl because the second generation flavor of meat is going directly and immediately into the milk. The case here, even if we consider the milk in the stomach to be "pirsha" should be exactly identical to the milk being put in a fleishig plate where Rashi himself holds that it becomes assur!

Chulin 115a - kol she'tavti le'cha

Rav Ashi says that the source for meat and milk being prohibited to eat and benefit from is the pasuk which says לא תאכל כל תועבה from which chazal darshen כל שתעבתי לך הרי הוא בבל תאכל. The gemara suggests that the same problem should apply to food cooked on shabbos, and it should be prohibited to eat and benefit from, but darshens from the pasuk of כי קדש היא לכם that ma'aseh shabbos is permitted. The gemara further tries to suggest that when one violates the prohibition of plowing with an ox and mule together or muzzling while working, the product should be forbidden. The gemara answers that since we permit ma'aseh shabbos, we should certainly permit the products of plowing with an ox and mule, or muzzling it while working. Rashi struggles with an obvious question, why wouldn't we also learn from ma'aseh shabbos that even bassar b'cholov should be permitted to derive benefit from. Rashi explains that there is a difference. When it comes to meat and milk, one is eating the actual issur that the Torah despised, whereas by ma'aseh shabbos and these other aveiros, we are merely speaking about the product of the issur, not the issur itself.

Tosasfos (end of d.h. choreish) struggles with why we consider the food cooked on shabbos to be merely the product of the aveira but not the תועבה itself, whereas by meat and milk we consider the food to be the actual תועבה that was despised by the Torah? Tosafos explains that it must have to do with how apparent the issur is within the item. By meat and milk where the issur is apparent in the product, the product of the aveira is considered the תועבה, but by ma'aseh shabbos where the issur isn't apparent in the product because one cannot tell from the product that it was cooked on shabbos, the food isn't considered the תועבה.

Tosafos approach seems to be using a d'rabbonon style logic to distinguish between bassar b'cholov and ma'aseh shabbos on a Torah level. It would seem difficult to say that appearance of the product would determine whether the Torah renders it a תועבה. The Rashash suggests another distinction to answer Tosafos question. The cooking of meat and milk is that act of prohibition that the Torah forbids, therefore the product of that act is considered a תועבה. But by ma'aseh shabbos the Torah doesn't forbid specifically the cooking of food, rather the Torah forbids any melacha to be done on shabbos. The food that is cooked on shabbos is not a direct product of what is specifically forbidden by the Torah, therefore not considered a תועבה.

I would like to suggest a slightly different approach. According to the approach that meat and milk that have been cooked together are forbidden to eat and benefit from because they are considered a  תועבה due to the fact that an issur was done with them, it should only be forbidden if cooked by a Jewish adult. Had the cooking been done by a child or at least by a goy, where there was no violation in the process of cooking the product shouldn't be considered a תועבה. Yet, Rashi 114b writes that even if cooked by a goy or a child (rashi implies that we don't render an aveira done by a child to be a ma'aseh aveira), we would consider the product a תועבה. Rashi 114b explains that it is not the act of the aveira that renders the product a תועבה, rather the תועבה is the item itself. Rashi understands that it is as if the Torah would have said that meat and milk is a תועבה, therefore stay away from cooking it. When the Torah identifies an item and forbids an action associated with that item, it can be understood that the action doesn't cause the item to be forbidden, rather the torah recognizes the item as something despised herefore forbids the action i.e. cooking. This would only apply when there is a specific item referred to by the Torah such as meat and milk. The Torah considers meat and milk that is cooked together to be a תועבה, therefore forbids any Jew from cooking it. But, even if a goy were to cook it, the item is still a תועבה. In contrast to the issur of ma'aseh shabbos - the Torah doesn't despise the product, therefore forbid the action of cooking. If that were the case then even something cooked by a goy should be included. The fact that it is only considered ma'aseh shabbos when done by a Jew indicates that the action is what is considered forbidden, and the food is merely a product of the forbidden action to cook. This would not give the food a status of תועבה.

Chulin 114a - Is it Forbidden to Benefit from McDonalds?

According to Shmuel there is an extra pasuk to teach that the issur of meat and milk is binding even on top of a preexisting issur of neveila, therefore one who eats neveila cooked in milk would receive lashes. However, the gemara cites an argument between R. Ami and R. Asi limiting the discussion to be whether one who cooks neveila with milk would receive lashes for the act of cooking, but all agree that since the eating is already forbidden due to the issur of neveila, the prohibition to eat meat and milk isn't binding on top of the preexisting prohibition of neveila.

Based on this, the Rambam (machalos assuros 9) paskens that one who cooks neveila with milk would receive lashes for cooking meat and milk, but one who eats it wouldn't receive lashes for eating meat and milk. However, both the gemara and the Rambam (in mishne torah) are silent regarding the prohibition to benefit from meat and milk. Would that be similar to eating and not apply to neveila, or would it be compared to cooking and apply to neveila?

The Dagul M'rvava (y.d. 87) cited by the Pischei Teshuva (6) quotes the Rambam in his commentary to the mishnayos on krisus who suggests that benefit and eating go hand in hand. Since the issur to eat meat and milk isn't binding on top of the prohibition of neveila, the prohibition to benefit is also not binding. The Pischei Teshuva quotes in the name of the kanfei yona who disagrees with the dagul m'ravava, and the Chasam Sofer who says that one who relies on the dagul m'rvava can't be rejected, but in his opinion the kanfei yona is more correct.

The source of the dagul m'rvava is the Rambam in what he refers to as a נקודה נפלאה in his commentary on krisus. The Rambam asks that the issur to eat basar b'chalav should be binding on the issur of neveila since it is an איסור מוסיף by virtue of the fact that meat and milk is forbidden even to derive benefit from. To this the Rambam says that the issur to eat and the issur to benefit aren't independent entities, rather the prohibition to benefit is an extension of the issur to eat (we see a similar concept in succah 35a by an esrog that is forbidden to eat where rashi writes that it doesn't qualify as לכם. Rashi explains that "lachem" implies that you can benefit from it in all ways - an esrog that is forbidden to eat is missing a major source of benefit). Based on this Rambam, the issur to benefit isn't considered a new issur to cause the issur achila to be binding, and the dagul m'rvava therefore proves from here that even the issur to benefit itself wouldn't be binding. There is a lot of discussion about this Rambam because he seems to say that the approach only works because there isn't an independent source to forbid benefiting from meat and milk, yet in sefer hamitzvos he writes himself that the third repetition of לא תבשל גדי בחלב אמו is an independent source to forbid benefit.

Chulin 103b - Rules of Eating to violate Eiver Min Hachai

The gemara (according to Rashi) has two versions of R. Yochanan as to whether the concept of כדי אכילת פרס applies to אבר מן החי, like it would by all other issurim. On the top of the page the gemara assumed that it would not apply, and on the bottom of the page when it deals with eating a half kezayis and then another half kezayis, assumes that it does.The rationale that אבר מן החי would be different and not have this halacha l'moshe misinai is that even inedible foods combine to the shiur of kezayis. Since אבר מן החי is a chiddush, the halacha l'moshe misinai that allows us to combine all eating within כדי אכילת פרס wouldn't apply to a chiddush case. Without the concept of כדי אכילת פרס the gemara assumes that the entire kezayis must be consumed בבת אחת, but then enters a discussion as to what would qualify as בבת אחת - at one time.

There seem to be three opinions in the gemara what would qualify as בבת אחת, and is dependent on the definition of אכילה. R. Yochanan considers eating to be a function of הנאת גרונו - the mouth. Reish Lakish considers eating to be a function of הנאת מעיו - the stomach. Therefore, R. Yochanan will say that as long as there is a kezayis in the mouth at one time, it is considered בבת אחת, whereas Reish Lakish will say that a kezayis must be swallowed at one time (Rashi explains that it is not possible to chew a kezayis and swallow it all at once since it will naturally begin to slip down his throat, so the only way to swallow a full kezayis would be without chewing. Rashi also seems to hold that swallowing something which is normal to chew wouldn't constitute דרך אכילה, therefore the gemara is forced to make the case of גרומיתא זעירתא which is normal to be swallowed without chewing).

Within the opinion of R. Yochanan that it only qualifies as בבת אחת if a kezayis enters the mouth at the same time, Rashi and Tosafos argue whether we require the kezayis to literally be one unit when it is put into the mouth (tosafos), or whether it can be cut in half so long as there will be a full kezayis in the mouth at one time (rashi). Similarly, they will argue in the opinion of Reish Lakish. Rashi should only require a kezayis in the stomach at the same time, even if it were swallowed in parts (this is actually tosafos question on rashi because reish lakish seems to hold that a full unit of kezayis must be swallowed at one time), whereas Tosafos requires a full unit of a kezayis to be swallowed at one time.

However, according to R. Elazar both Rashi and Tosafos would agree that if one would eat a half kezayis and after a slight pause eat another half, it would qualify as an eating בבת אחת to be chayev. The concept of כדי אכילת פרס would have only permitted the pause to be longer between the two half kezaysim. Since we don't apply כדי אכילת פרס, the pause must be very slight - רש"י - שנתרחקו זה מזה מעט.

The Rambam (Ma'achalos Ha'asuros 5:3-4) has a very different approach in this gemara. Firstly, the Rambam understands that the case of חלקו מבחוץ is not when one eats a half kezayis and then another half kezayis as rashi says, nor is it a case where one splits the kezayis in half and puts both halves in his mouth together as Tosafos says. Rather, the case is where he separates the meat from the bone so that it is no longer one unit. The Rambam understands that the chiddush ha'torah which allows you to combine the bones to make up the kezayis only applies when the integrity of the limb is maintained. As soon as one separates the meat from the bone, the bones are no different than bones by other issurim which don't qualify as an eating. Therefore, the case of חלקו מבפנים that you are going to be chayev is when one puts the meat in his mouth with the bone, and only in his mouth do they separate from one another. Since they were placed in his mouth together, they combine.

The Rambam also holds that paskening like R. Elazar wouldn't undermine the assumption of R. Yochanan. R. Elazar who allows one to be chayev even if they would break the eiver into pieces and eat a half kezayis and then another half, would only apply if ultimately he ate a full kezayis of MEAT. Therefore, if he actually ate a full kezayis of meat, he is chayev even though he separated the meat from the bone and ate it little by little (even with slight pause in between) which is the halacha of R. Elazar. But, in order to combine the bones with the meat to fill the shiur of kezayis, he must place the bone in his mouth together with the meat and together they must make up a kezayis - which is the halacha of R. Yochanan. In other words, the Rambam understands that R. Elazar takes issue with the definition of eating בבת אחת that R. Yochanan establishes by relaxing the requirement of putting it in one's mouth together (when there is no need for bones to be considered toward the kezayis), but agrees with the din of when bones can be combined - only when they are together with the meat at the time they are consumed.

Chulin 102a - Eiver Min Ha'chai

The gemara says that even though the prohibition of אבר מן החי for a Jew may only apply to kosher animals (acc. to chachamim and R. Meir), for a goy it will apply even to non-kosher animals. Tosafos 33a questions how this can be. Wouldn't this be a violation of the rule that there is nothing prohibited to a goy that is permitted to a Jew - ליכא מדעם דלישראל שרי ולעכו"ם אסור. Tosafos says that since there would be a prohibition for the Jew to eat a non-kosher animal, even though it wouldn't be considered אבר מן החי, it would not violate the principle of something being permitted to a Jew and prohibited to a goy. Tosafos holds that the prohibition on the goy doesn't have to be the same prohibition on the Jew so long as there is some prohibition (R. Akiva Eiger in a teshuva 165 qualifies this idea and says that it would only be when the prohibition on the Jew is a lack of shechita such as a non-kosher animal, to the exclusion of a treifa where it has already been shechted properly and has not relation to the issur of eiver min ha'chai).

It seems to me that Rashi in our sugya is also addressing the same question. Rashi writes -

אבל בן נח מוזהר על הכל, דכל דקרינא ביה בשר לחודיה אכול, קרינא ביה אבר מן החי לא תאכל. Rashi says that whenever it is permitted to eat the meat after being killed, there is an issur of eiver min ha'chai to eat the meat prematurely. Perhaps rashi understands that the principle of there is nothing prohibited to a goy that is permitted to a Jew isn't violated here because the same exact principle that applies to the goy - don't eat alive what you can eat dead, applies to the Jew. The only difference is that the Jew cannot eat non-kosher animals when dead so there is not issur of אבר מן החי when it's alive, but for the goy there is. Since the principle applies equally to the Jew and goy it wouldn't violate the rule of ליכא מדעם דלישראל שרי ולעכו"ם אסור.

Chulin 101b - The Two Prohibitions of Yom Kippur

Rashi explains that when the gemara tries to prove that R. Yossi Haglili holds of איסור כולל from the fact that when yom kippur falls on shabbos and he does melacha he has to bring a korban both for shabbos and for yom kippur. Even though YK and shabbos are entering at the same time, one can only be liable for both since if theoretically one would start before the other, each can be binding on top of the first. Rashi explains that even if shabbos would enter prior to YK, the prohibition of YK would be binding on top of shabbos as an איסור כולל. The fact that YK forbids not only doing melacha, but also eating and drinking makes it an איסור כולל to allow the prohibition of melacha to be binding on top of the prohibition against doing melacha on shabbos - מיגו דאיתסר באכילה משום יוה"כ איתסר ליה נמי מלאכה משום יוה"כ. The difficulty of this rashi is how can we say an איסור כולל from the issur to eat to the issur to do melacha, they are totally separate prohibitions. From rashi we learn a new approach in understanding the nature of the issur to eat and to do melacha on YK. Although in the counting of mitzvos they are completely independent, and would seemingly be two completely separate prohibitions that apply on the 10th of Tishrei, that is not how rashi is viewing it. Rather, the kedusha of YK results in two halachos, one is a prohibition of eating and the second is the prohibition of melacha. Both are outgrowths of the kedushas ha'yom and not independent prohibition that apply to the calendar date of 10th of Tishrei. It would now make sense that Rashi can consider YK in the general sense to be an איסור כולל from eating to melacha, since both are merely outgrowths of the kedusha of YK.

I would like to suggest that the Rambam would not agree with rashi. Rambam (Hil. Shevisas Asor 1:6) writes that the mitzvah d'oraysa to add to YK before and after is limited to YK (not shabbos and yom tov) and limited to the עינוי of YK, it doesn't extend m'doraysa to the issur melacha. The Minchas Chinuch clearly understands the Rambam this way. The Rambam would seem to hold that m'doraysa when one is me'kabel YK early, they are prohibited from eating but not prohibited from doing melacha. The fact that by accepting kedushas ha'yom one can be prohibited from eating but not from melacha implies that the they are not an outgrowth of the kedushas ha'yom, rather two independent halachos that apply on the 10th of Tishrei and could theoretically exist one without the other.

Chulin 99b - Bitul in more that 60x

The Rama (y.d. 98) writes that foods with a very strong flavor such as spices are not batul in 60x because the flavor is still able to be tasted, however the Rama limits this to when the item is prohibited in and of itself (i.e. teruma or avoda zara), to the exclusion of spices that just have a non-kosher item absorbed in it. The source for the Rama is our gemara where we see that "grissin" which fall into lentils can give flavor even if there is 100x as much to be mevatel. Clearly, the idea of 60x is an assumption but doesn't apply to cases where the flavor is actually tasted. But, regarding the Rama's stipulation that this rule would not apply to foods that have the taste of issur absorbed in them, but are not assur themselves, the Gr"a quotes those who disagree. The Gr"a writes that in our gemara we find that fish brine isn't going to be batul until there is 192x as much, even though the actual water and vinegar in the brine isn't technically assur, just that it has the flavor of the fish fat absorbed inside of it. The same should apply to a spice which has the flavor of non-kosher meat - so long as the spice could be tasted in whatever dish it falls into, it should be assur even if there is 60x as much.

The Shach writes that when spices are able to assur foods even when there is more than 60x, it is only an issur d'rabonon. R. Akiva Eiger quotes the Ran who disagrees and holds that it would be d'oraysa. The Ran is easy to understand, but the Shach is harder to understand - why would it only be d'rabonon? It seems that the Shach understands that once there is 60x of the mutar food to the assur food, the flavor is weakened to a point that it isn't considered true ta'am and therefore it is only assur m'drabonon.

Chulin 99b - Gid Hanashe is Prohibited to Derive Benefit From

The gemara has a discussion in Pesachim about things that are prohibited to eat, whether they should also be prohibited to derive benefit from. Either way, one of the approaches to understand the nature of issurei achila - things that are prohibited to eat, is that it is essentially a prohibition to derive benefit, but the Torah only forbids the epitome of benefit from the item - eating. Meaning, that the nature of issur achila is that it is prohibited to derive the benefit that this item is meant to provide which is the benefit of eating. This would explain for example why we wouldn't consider an achila gassa (over eating), or eating of something which taste bad to be a violation of eating, since there is no pleasure or benefit associated with that eating. 

However, Tosafos makes a calculation in our sugya that undermines this premise. Tosafos proves from the gemara in Pesachim that according to the opinion who considers giddin (sinews) to have flavor, it is only prohibited to eat. But according to the opinion who doesn't consider it to have flavor, it is even prohibited to derive benefit from. Since we rule that Gid Ha'nashe doesn't give off flavor, we must rule that one cannot derive benefit from it - therefore it cannot be gifted to a goy, if the presence of the gid hanashe will raise the stature of the gift. Now, if one were to eat gid hanashe they would certainly be in violation of the prohibition to eat gid hanashe, even though there is no flavor so that they cannot be in violation of the issur to derive benefit. If it were true that the prohibition to eat is a form of deriving benefit, one couldn't be in violation of eating gid hanashe since there is no benefit and would only be in violation on selling or giving to a goy in which there is benefit. The fact that one is in violation even for the eating of gid hanashe which has no flavor, indicates that eating is in no way contingent on the pleasure or benefit one receives from the food, rather it is an act that the Torah forbids regardless of the benefit it provides.

Chulin 94b - Rules of Geneivas Da'as

The gemara on amud alef has three answers to explain the mishna. Tosafos writes that according to the first answer of the gemara that the mishna is speaking in a place where they call out so it is permitted to purchase from a goy, the mishna would contradict the braisa. To reconcile the contradiction Tosafos is forced to distinguish between a sale and a gift - only by a sale where money is being paid is there an issur of g'neivas da'as. However, according to the second and third answer Tosafos says that only when you explicitly lie is it considered g'neivas da'as, but if you just do something where the other party draws his own conclusion it would be considered איהו הוא דקא מטעי נפשיה (as we see in the gemara and isn't considered gneivas da'as). Tosafos modifies this slightly by saying when one does an action that is suggestive such as opening up a barrel of wine in the presence of the guest indicating that it is in his honor, that is tantamount to actually saying that you are doing it for him. Rashi seems to maintain that once the gemara introduces the concept of איהו הוא דקא מטעי נפשיה, we limit ALL the cases of geneivas da'as to where he explicitly told the person that he is doing it for him, or explicitly told the person that it was shechted meat. We see from here that one is not obligated to correct his friends misunderstanding of the situation, but cannot actively mislead him.

Chulin 94a - Geneivas Da'as

The gemara in trying to figure out the p'shat in the mishna that prohibits sending meat from which the gid ha'nashe was removed to a goy, offers a few explanations. The final explanation is that it is a violation of geneivas da'as. Being that the first two answers are able to explain the mishna without inventing a concept of geneivas da'as, perhaps we shouldn't pasken like the approach that relies on this concept. The Rosh takes this approach and rejects the notion of geneivas da'as when one sends a gift to a goy, such as the case in the mishna and limits the problem of geneivas da'as specifically to a sale. With this he is able to work out the various other sources that indicate geneivas da'as is a real prohibition, but rejects applying the concept to the case of the mishna since it was being sent as a gift rather than a sale (עיין במעדני יו"ט ס' ר' שמוכיח מהש"ס שאין חילוק בין מכר למתנה). It would seem from the Rosh's approach that geneivas da'as applies to a sale but not a gift, that it is essentially an offshoot of the prohibition to steal. When one is giving a gift and not receiving anything in return as part of the compensation, it cannot be considered stealing. But, when one is receiving some level of compensation, it is prohibited to fool the buyer since the entire compensation is now being given under a false pretense (even though the buyer may have paid the same price even had he known the truth).

In my opinion there are 3 approaches to the nature of the issur of geneivas da'as. The Rosh holds that it is an offshoot of actual theft. Rashi and the Rambam reject the approach of the Rosh, yet differ in how they portray the issur.

Rashi writes  multiple times in the sugya - ונמצא מחזיק לו טובה חנם. This implies that the prohibition is not stealing the compensation because rashi uses this logic even in the case of a gift where there is no compensation. Rather, the prohibition is not at the time of the geneivas da'as, it is violated afterward when you accept the goodwill of the receiver and his interest in responding in kind for something that he thinks you did for him, when in truth you didn't do for him as much as he thinks you did. It would seem from rashi that if one would notify the goy immediately after the violation of the geneivas da'as before he will have feelings of goodwill, he will avoid the entire prohibition. The issur is not in fooling the goy, nor is it in stealing compensation for the goy, but is is accepting his goodwill.

The Rambam in Hil. Dei'os 2:6 has what would be considered the simplest approach to the nature of geneivas da'as. The Rambam writes

אסור לאדם להנהיג עצמו בדברי חלקות ופיתוי, ולא יהיה אחד בפה ואחד בלב אלא תוכו כברו והענין שבלב הוא הדבר שבפה, ואסור לגנוב דעת הבריות ואפילו דעת הנכרי, כיצד לא ימכור לנכרי בשר נבילה במקום בשר שחוטה, ולא מנעל של מתה במקום מנעל של שחוטה וכו' ואפילו מלה אחת של פתוי ושל גניבת דעת אסור, אלא שפת אמת ורוח נכון ולב טהור מכל עמל והוות

The Rambam considers the prohibition to have nothing to do with the subject of the geneivas da'as. It is a violation of the מידת האמת that is expected of a Jew, and by lying to the anyone, even a goy, he is undermining this essential midah of being truthful. The difference between the Rambam and Rashi is that according to Rashi the prohibition exists because of the outcome of the undeserved goodwill that the Jew will receive from the goy, whereas according to the Rambam the issur is the act of deceiving another human being.

Chulin 89b - Merit of Avrohom Comparing Himself To Dirt and Ash

The gemara says that in the merit of Avrohom Avinu comparing himself to dirt and ash, the Jewish people merited the parah aduma which involves ash and the Sotah which involves dirt. The Maharsha explains that it doesn't mean to say that had Avrohom not made the comment אנכי עפר ואפר, we would never have a way to remove the tu'mah of tu'mas meis and would never have a method for the Sotah would never have a method to return to her husband. Rather, there would have been a far more complex and difficult process to achieve these results. In the merit of Avrohom humbling himself with the statement of אנכי עפר ואפר, they were able to achieve these results in an easier form using mere dirt and ash.

I would add that the attribute that most greatly separates between people is that of arrogance. Humility is an attribute that breeds togetherness. In the merit of Avrohom's humility, we were zocheh to two mitzvos that bring people back together. The ashes of the para aduma allow tamei people to once again interact with the tahor, and the dirt of the sotah allows her back to her husband.

The gemara asks that the mitzvah of כסוי הדם should have also been in the merit of Avrohom comparing himself to dirt.The gemara responds that there has to be a tangible benefit that comes from the mitzvah, and by covering the blood there is no tangible benefit. It seems to me that Rava who is the person making the statement is li'shitaso. We find that Rava himself on 89a takes a position of מצות לאו ליהנות ניתנו, which simply means that the merit of the mitzvah in itself doesn't qualify as a benefit. Only physical benefits qualify as real הנאה. Therefore, Rava holds that the benefit of having a mitzvah to perform thereby an opportunity to receive reward in the world to come, doesn't qualify as a benefit and therefore isn't significant enough to be the reward for Avrohom's statement. It is only the physical and tangible benefit that come from פרה אדומה and עפר סוטה that can be the reward for Avrohom's statement.

As an aside, Rashi says that the ability to eat the meat cannot be considered the "benefit" of כסוי הדם since the kashrus of the meat is not at all dependent on kisuy ha'dam. The Pri Megadim (y.d.sifsei da'as 28:2) says that we cannot prove from here that it is permitted to eat the meat without kisuy ha'dam. Perhaps Rashi means to say that if there wouldn't have been a mitzvah to cover the blood, it would have been permissible to eat the meat, so we can't consider this mitzvah to be a real benefit. However, now that there is a mitzvah to cover the blood, it is entirely plausible that until it is done, the meat cannot be eaten. Nonetheless, l'ma'aseh we assume that the mitzvah of kisuy ha'dam has zero to do with the ability to eat the meat. Even if by tevilas keilim for example, the use of the vessel prior to tevila may be a bitul of the mitzvas aseh, by kisuy ha'dam the kashrus of the meat doesn't seem to be at all connected to the mitzvah on the blood.