Rashi assumes in the end of the mishna 100b that if we have a safek to which mishmar the kohen belongs to, he can force his way into serving together with either mishmar. following this premise, tosfos asks in 101a how does the gemara know that we may force the kohen to come and serve because of "p'gam mish'pacha", maybe the mishna means that he can force the mishmar to let him work. point is both rashi and tosfos assume that in our case the kohen may force the mishmar to let him serve just he cannot force him to get the meat and skins etc.
The tosfos y"t wonders why they assume this, maybe he shouldn't be able to force them to let him serve?? the tosfos y"t wants to argue and say that in fact he cannot force his way into service just as he cannot force them to give him the meat and skins and with this tosfos question in 101a falls away. what is the argument here???
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