Tosafos explains that only a megilla written with ashuris letters in hebrew language can qualify as kisvei hakodesh to be metamei yadayim, yet one can read the megillah from a book written in another language (for someone who understands that language). Clearly, the din of reading from ksav, to the exclusion of reading ba'al peh, would not require kisvei hakodesh. Based on this, I don't understand the question of Tosafos 7a. The gemara 7a says that if Ester was to be read b'ruach hakodesh, but not written b'ruach hakodesh, it would not be mtamei yadayim. Tosafos asks, if it is not metamei yadayim, why is one who reads b'al peh not yotzei? Based on Tosafos 8b, there is no question, bec. although one must read from a ksav, the ksav does not need to be kisvei hakodesh that is metamei yadayim?
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