Wednesday, February 14, 2007

question

why do we need a pasuk and a sevara to say that a neder is not 'chayav b'achrayus'?

4 comments:

Avromi said...

I think there's a printers mistake in the kasha.

Avi Lebowitz said...

i assume that r' yossi meant that to ask why you need a pasuk and sevara by nedava. but, i am not sure what you mean by a sevara - the sevara of the gemara is simply to explain that "a'lav" implies a personal responsibility to interpret the pasuk.

Anonymous said...

yes reb avi, but by nedarim we go after the language of the people, so if this is what it means why do we need a pasuk?
yes i did nedava, sorry i relaized a moment too late.

Avi Lebowitz said...

loshon bnei adam by nedarim is used to explain what he means, but i don't think that will explain the difference between neder and nedava. Even if people don't mean to be chayev in achroyus when they say neder, yet they are chayev since that is the definition of the term neder (we also find many gemaras in nedarim using pesukim to explain terms, bec. whenever the lashon bnei adam is unclear, we can use the pasuk to clarify).