Saturday, October 20, 2007
question 49b
the gemara here treats the husband as a "buyer", my question is that if so he should be considered a buyer that bought the property after the onslaught of the chiuv mezonos, so what is the chidush that he has to pay mezonons? in other words, the whole proof is from the fact that this husband is different then a regular buyer (see rashi) see i wonder can the children sell property after the fathers death to absolve themselves from paying sustenance?
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5 comments:
Regards to both of you from Reb Menachem Spira
thanks,hope to meet you one day.
It would be a zchus for me.
thanks for the regards.
back to r' yossi's question - i think it is clear that normally the mezonos would not come from mishubadim, even if it was sold after the chiyuv mezonos (because that is the only case where a ba'al chov would collect from mishubadim, and on that we are mechadesh that for mezonons you don't collect from mishubadim). Nevertheless, we allow the widow to collect from her daughters husband, to the exclusion if the daughter actually sold it the almana would not collect.
i hear, but it comes out really wierd, what stops the Yorshim from selling off all the land???
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