Wednesday, December 06, 2006
r"h 2
tosfos argues on rashi and says that we do not write the gentile kings in our shtaros besides for greece. more interesting is that until recently shtaros were written to the year that the greek empire started (alexander). why? the answer is lengthy, but in short that at that time the jewish history changed and a new era of Torah Shbeal Peh came in (chanuka!). The greek empire came to rule as prphecy ended and the mishna era started. what is the depth behind all this? see afikei yam on chanuka.
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3 comments:
On a different topic but possibly related can you explain pshat in the ein yaakov that learns the ramban in parshas bo as follows. there is no positive mitzva to count the months acc to nissan however if one is counting them, it must be from nissan and not from tishrei l'zichron haneis hagadol. If we are so concerned to remember yetzias mitzrayim in the months why isnt the mitzva that way always and therefore it should be ussur to say nissan , iyar, etc.? (minchas chinuch 311 agrees with ein yaakov)
it is a very interesting point. you are right it might be related. while prphecy was around we were living on a yetzias mitzrayim level, once the galus started then in a sense, we do not have with us yetzias mitzrayim on the same level. the name of the months originate in bavel and are directly connected to the galus concept. a new era of the talmudic jew vs the bibical jew has arrived when we must dodge the bullets of galus. a lot more has to be said.
yasherkoach - for more on the names of the months and if they originate from bavel look here at Daf Notes. thanks
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